Name: 
 

Health Final Exam Review



Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

A person’s self-esteem
a.
cannot be changed.
c.
is not important for being successful.
b.
can be changed.
d.
does not influence his or her behavior.
 

 2. 

Which of the following is not an important step in improving your self-esteem?
a.
acting with integrity
c.
comparing yourself to others
b.
choosing supportive friends
d.
accepting yourself
 

 3. 

Carla decided not to accept a beer from Joe. Joe responded, “Go ahead, be a loser,” and walked away. Carla thought, “It’s too bad Joe feels that way, but I don’t need to drink to enjoy myself.” Which of the following is true of Carla?
a.
She has high self-esteem.
b.
She doesn’t do anything to harm herself.
c.
She resisted peer pressure.
d.
all of the above
 

 4. 

People with high self-esteem
a.
look out only for themselves.
c.
can easily talk with people.
b.
take advantage of others.
d.
all of the above
 

 5. 

You can improve your self-esteem by
a.
celebrating your strengths.
c.
accepting yourself.
b.
using positive self-talk.
d.
all of the above
 

 6. 

To build self-esteem, Jim could
a.
speak positively about himself.
c.
have fun.
b.
reward himself when he does well.
d.
all of the above
 

 7. 

A problem that may signal a person’s need to obtain professional help is
a.
too much or too little sleep.
b.
feelings of hopelessness.
c.
the inability to concentrate and make decisions.
d.
all of the above
 

 8. 

If you are jealous because your girlfriend or boyfriend is dating other people, you should
a.
try not to be critical of yourself.
b.
get some exercise.
c.
discuss your feelings with your girlfriend or boyfriend.
d.
build something.
 

 9. 

One useful strategy for managing loneliness is
a.
engaging in activities that will make you part of a group.
b.
making a list of your positive traits.
c.
not being critical of yourself.
d.
engaging in self-talk.
 

 10. 

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a mentally healthy person?
a.
feeling good about herself or himself
b.
being optimistic
c.
finding ways to keep in contact with friends and make new friends
d.
always avoiding difficult or unpleasant situations
 

 11. 

Angelina has just won first place in an ice-skating competition. She likes to share her good feelings and enjoyment of ice skating by volunteering some time every week to teach handicapped children how to skate. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, Angelina is at the level known as
a.
the safety stage.
c.
the esteem stage.
b.
the social stage.
d.
self-actualization.
 

 12. 

Mental disorders are
a.
feared by some people.
c.
often misunderstood.
b.
treatable.
d.
all of the above
 

 13. 

Symptoms of an eating disorder include all of the following except
a.
starving oneself.
b.
gaining 5 pounds.
c.
obsessive thoughts about weight control.
d.
eating large amounts of food and then vomiting.
 

 14. 

Which of these symptoms does not indicate depression?
a.
intense anger about an injustice
c.
loss of appetite
b.
lack of energy
d.
too little sleep
 

 15. 

Almost 10 percent of Americans have some level of depression. What forms of treatment might be appropriate for someone experiencing major depression?
a.
group therapy
c.
medication
b.
psychotherapy
d.
Any of the above
 

 16. 

Stress is caused by
a.
behavioral stressors.
c.
thinking stressors.
b.
life change stressors.
d.
all of the above
 

 17. 

Which body change is not triggered by epinephrine?
a.
slowing of breathing
c.
tensing of muscles
b.
widening of pupils
d.
stopping of digestion
 

 18. 

Freezing up before speaking in front of an audience is a response to
a.
eustress.
c.
adrenaline.
b.
distress.
d.
epinephrine.
 

 19. 

An example of both a biological stressor and a life change stressor is
a.
beginning to date.
b.
being excluded from a social circle.
c.
having a serious illness.
d.
experiencing the serious illness of a parent.
 

 20. 

Paul just had an argument with his friend. Paul is angry and feels a lot of stress. His muscles are tense. The best thing Paul can do immediately to relieve his stress is
a.
self-talk.
c.
breathing exercises.
b.
talk to a friend.
d.
eliminate the stessor.
 

 21. 

The best way to defend yourself from stress-related illness is to
a.
exercise regularly.
c.
eat right.
b.
get enough sleep.
d.
all of the above
 

 22. 

Which of the following is not a correct statement about stress?
a.
Everyone usually reacts to stressors in the same way.
b.
A headache may be a sign of stress.
c.
Going on a date can cause stress.
d.
Several different types of stressors cause stress.
 

 23. 

Elana has learned that her grandfather has advanced cancer and has about three months to live. Her first reaction to this news will most likely be
a.
depression.
c.
denial.
b.
anger.
d.
acceptance.
 

 24. 

A good friend of yours has been diagnosed with AIDS. He tells you that he made a pact with God. He tells you that God is going to help the doctors make his AIDS go into remission because he promised God that he is going to go to church and help needy people. Your friend is in the stage of grief known as
a.
depression.
c.
bargaining.
b.
denial.
d.
acceptance.
 

 25. 

Aaron was very close to his father. Aaron’s father was killed in a car accident. Aaron’s loss of his father may cause him to
a.
experience a range of emotions.
c.
develop tension headaches.
b.
doubt his stability.
d.
all of the above
 

 26. 

A behavior that does not indicate that a person may be thinking about committing suicide is
a.
taking more risks than usual.
c.
giving away their personal things.
b.
taking care of their appearance.
d.
using drugs.
 

 27. 

Many people who attempt suicide
a.
do so because they have suicidal parents.
b.
do so for trivial reasons.
c.
do not really want to die, but are crying out for help.
d.
have examined all other options and found there is no alternative.
 

 28. 

Some situations that might lead to suicidal thoughts and/or behavior include
a.
the loss of a relationship.
c.
an unplanned pregnancy.
b.
drug use.
d.
all of the above
 

 29. 

If a friend tells you she is considering suicide, but makes you promise not to tell anyone, you should
a.
tell a trusted adult about your friend’s problem.
b.
tell only her other close friends.
c.
keep your promise and not tell anyone.
d.
not worry about it because she always lies anyway.
 

 30. 

Adults who are now living happy lives
a.
never had problems as teenagers.
b.
may have considered suicide as teenagers.
c.
can’t understand how difficult life is for teenagers.
d.
must have had happy childhoods.
 

 31. 

Which of the following is not a correct statement about suicide?
a.
To a depressed person, suicide may appear to be the only way out of extreme emotional pain.
b.
Serious depression combined with low self-esteem creates the emotional climate for suicide.
c.
It is impossible to help someone who is contemplating suicide.
d.
There are ways to solve even the most serious problems.
 

 32. 

Conflicts can be resolved without violence by
a.
using the steps of the GREAT decisions model.
b.
being respectful, yet assertive.
c.
focusing on the real issue.
d.
all of the above
 

 33. 

Peer mediation is a type of
a.
conflict resolution.
c.
peer pressure.
b.
GREAT decision making.
d.
gangs.
 

 34. 

Tim is new in school and is having trouble making friends. Tim is approached and asked to become a member of a gang. What other options should Tim consider?
a.
joining a school team
b.
talking to a trusted adult
c.
finding a group of peers with similar interests
d.
all of the above
 

 35. 

Jazmine just had a first date with one of the most popular boys at school. She tells you that her date forced her to have sexual intercourse with him after she repeatedly told him no. What would you tell Jazmine?
a.
He probably didn’t mean it.
b.
She should not tell anyone else; they wouldn’t believe her.
c.
She should talk with her parents and inform the police.
d.
She should try to get even with him.
 

 36. 

Bodily harm is to physical abuse as failure to provide for a child’s basic needs is to
a.
spouse abuse.
c.
neglect.
b.
homicide.
d.
sexual assault.
 

 37. 

Abusive behaviors include
a.
obsessive and controlling behavior.
b.
selfish and needy behavior.
c.
jealousy and difficulty controlling anger.
d.
all of the above
 

 38. 

Domestic abuse is
a.
physical or emotional harm to someone.
b.
the use of force to control and maintain power over a spouse in the home.
c.
the failure of a caretaker to provide for the basic needs.
d.
harassing newcomers to a group.
 

 39. 

Child abuse can take all of the following forms except
a.
physical abuse.
c.
domestic violence.
b.
neglect.
d.
emotional abuse.
 

 40. 

Which of the following is a factor that leads to conflict?
a.
unmanaged anger
c.
living in an overcrowded area
b.
fatigue
d.
all of the above
 

 41. 

Which of the following is not a skill for successfully resolving conflict?
a.
bullying
c.
peer mediation
b.
negotiation
d.
compromise
 

 42. 

Effects of abuse include
a.
poor appetite.
c.
feelings of guilt and shame.
b.
difficulty sleeping.
d.
all of the above
 

 43. 

Which of the following foods belong to the milk, yogurt, and cheese group?
a.
eggs
c.
donuts
b.
ice cream
d.
all of the above
 

 44. 

Why is it important to limit the amount of sodium in your diet?
a.
Sodium causes weak bones and teeth.
b.
Sodium is sometimes linked to high blood pressure.
c.
Sodium is linked to cancer.
d.
all of the above
 

 45. 

Which of the following should be the main source of food energy?
a.
carbohydrates
c.
fats
b.
proteins
d.
minerals
 

 46. 

The class of nutrient that is necessary for production of certain hormones and that forms a coating on nerves is
a.
carbohydrates.
c.
protein.
b.
water.
d.
fat.
 

 47. 

The class of nutrient that is essential for body growth and repair is
a.
vitamins.
c.
proteins.
b.
fats.
d.
carbohydrates.
 

 48. 

A deficiency of calcium can lead to
a.
rickets.
c.
scurvy.
b.
osteoporosis.
d.
anemia.
 

 49. 

For a healthful diet, nutrients must be consumed in different amounts. For example, carbohydrates should
a.
be limited to 300 milligrams a day.
b.
make up about 30 percent of your daily caloric intake.
c.
be limited to 3,000 milligrams a day.
d.
make up between 45 to 65 percent of your daily caloric intake.
 

 50. 

Which of the following meals best meets your body’s nutrient needs, without exceeding its energy needs?
a.
pasta with alfredo sauce, toasted garlic bread, tossed salad
b.
broiled fish, steamed carrots, brown and wild rice
c.
fried eggs, bacon, buttered toast and jelly
d.
beef tacos with sour cream and cheddar cheese, refried beans, rice
 

 51. 

Skim milk is a good choice as a source of protein, vitamin D, and calcium. Which population would have the highest need for including milk in their diet?
a.
adults
c.
teenagers
b.
vegetarians
d.
athletes
 

 52. 

What statement best describes how diet can influence health
a.
Diet prevents cancer, heart disease, and diabetes.
b.
In order to optimize health, a person must take in the right amount of nutrients and energy.
c.
Nutrients help form body tissues and promote growth.
d.
There is little proven evidence that diet influences health.
 

 53. 

The carbohydrate that circulates in your blood and provides energy for your cells is a
a.
complex carbohydrate called glycogen.
b.
a single sugar called fructose.
c.
a single sugar called glucose.
d.
a complex carbohydrate called starch.
 

 54. 

Insoluble fiber
a.
dissolves in water.
b.
is found in oat bran, apples, beans, and some vegetables.
c.
is found in refined-grain products.
d.
add bulk to your body’s wastes.
 

 55. 

Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol
a.
carries cholesterol to the body cells.
b.
can contribute to plaque formation on blood vessel walls.
c.
is sometimes called “bad cholesterol.”
d.
all of the above
 

 56. 

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans
a.
are a set of guidelines developed to improve health.
b.
are intended to reduce nutrition-related disease.
c.
bring together the recommendations of the Dietary Reference Intakes and DVs.
d.
all of the above
 

 57. 

Ideal body weight should be based on
a.
height and weight charts.
c.
size of body frame.
b.
body composition.
d.
lean mass.
 

 58. 

Peter is obese. He wants to lose 50 pounds. Which of the following is a safe and reasonable way to reach this goal?
a.
start a diet plan he saw advertised in a magazine
b.
make an appointment with his doctor to discuss a weight-loss plan
c.
cut all fatty foods from his diet
d.
cut all snacks from his diet and drink only water or diet drinks
 

 59. 

Digestive problems can be caused by
a.
overeating.
c.
a food intolerance.
b.
a specific disease.
d.
all of the above
 

 60. 

A healthy and efficient way to treat a single case of constipation is to
a.
take laxatives.
c.
add more high-fiber food to your diet.
b.
consult with your doctor.
d.
all of the above.
 

 61. 

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a healthful diet?
a.
sound, well-balanced choices from a variety of foods
b.
following the guidelines of dietary recommendations
c.
over-the-counter diet medications
d.
eating a balanced breakfast
 

 62. 

Which of the following characteristics might indicate that a person is at risk for an eating disorder?
a.
an urge to throw up after eating
b.
a guilty feeling when eating sweet or fattening foods
c.
over-exercising to burn all the Calories eaten
d.
all of the above
 

 63. 

Which of the following statements is not true about eating disorders?
a.
Victims do not realize that being fit and eating nutritiously will help make one feel good about oneself.
b.
It is important to get professional help early on.
c.
Those who suffer from eating disorders are not comfortable with their bodies.
d.
Eating disorders always involve eating too little.
 

 64. 

Which of the following is not a recommended suggestion for gaining weight?
a.
Reduce the number of Calories you eat.
b.
Increase your strength-training exercise level.
c.
Eat a variety of nutritious, high-calorie foods.
d.
Avoid skipping meals.
 

 65. 

The brain reward system describes how
a.
drugs of abuse are taken into the body.
b.
neurotransmitters release chemicals at synapses.
c.
the release of dopamine causes pleasure, reinforcing a behavior.
d.
students can get good grades by studying hard.
 

 66. 

Drugs can enter your body
a.
through inhalation and ingestion.
b.
by release from implanted pumps or injection.
c.
via transdermal patches and topical application.
d.
all of the above
 

 67. 

The agency responsible for ensuring the safety of food, drugs, and cosmetics is
a.
the Food and Drug Administration.
b.
the Department of Health and Human Services.
c.
the Department of the Interior.
d.
the Office of the Surgeon General of the United States.
 

 68. 

Steve is suffering from a headache and congestion. When choosing an over-the-counter (OTC) medicine, he should
a.
read labels to see which medicine will best relieve his symptoms.
b.
choose a generic drug.
c.
choose a brand-name drug.
d.
choose an antihistamine.
 

 69. 

Prescriptions are required for some drugs because
a.
some illnesses are serious and should be evaluated by a doctor.
b.
some prescription medicines are very powerful.
c.
prescriptions require that a doctor evaluate your needs.
d.
all of the above
 

 70. 

Problems that can occur as a result of drug use include
a.
allergic reactions.
c.
drug interactions.
b.
side effects.
d.
all of the above
 

 71. 

Alcohol is considered a drug because
a.
it causes a change in a person’s physical and emotional state.
b.
it is a regulated substance.
c.
it is made from naturally occurring substances such as sugar.
d.
it is a naturally occurring substance found in beer and wine.
 

 72. 

Which of the following is not a short-term effect of alcohol?
a.
nausea
c.
enhanced vision
b.
vomiting
d.
memory loss
 

 73. 

Which of the following is not a long-term effect of alcohol?
a.
hepatitis
c.
hangover
b.
cirrhosis
d.
brain damage
 

 74. 

Which of the following is a good reason not to drink alcohol?
a.
Alcohol abuse is harmful to your body.
b.
It is illegal for people under the age of 21 to drink.
c.
It would disappoint my parents if I was caught drinking.
d.
all of the above
 

 75. 

Drinking alcohol at inappropriate times is known as
a.
alcoholism.
c.
binge drinking.
b.
alcohol abuse.
d.
intoxication.
 

 76. 

Which is not a stage of alcoholism?
a.
drinking and driving
c.
addiction
b.
problem drinking
d.
dependence
 

 77. 

Which of the following is a warning sign of alcoholism?
a.
closer and better friendships
b.
better coping skills
c.
easygoing manner around people
d.
professional and personal relationship problems
 

 78. 

What is the number one cause of death among teens?
a.
drowning
c.
suicide
b.
homicide
d.
motor vehicle accidents
 

 79. 

Which of the following is unlikely to result from alcohol abuse?
a.
jail or probation time
b.
participation in unplanned sexual activity
c.
unintentional injury
d.
achieving your short- and long-term goals
 

 80. 

Some teens are lured into drinking alcohol because
a.
they feel pressure from their peers.
b.
they wish to mask some emotional pain.
c.
they think alcohol will improve their image.
d.
all of the above
 

 81. 

**EXTRA CREDIT**  Which of the following is a controllable risk factor for alcoholism?
a.
genes
c.
age that drinking begins
b.
environment
d.
None of the above
 

 82. 

Help for alcoholics and family members of alcoholics is available through
a.
Al-Anon.
c.
Alcoholics Anonymous.
b.
hospital programs.
d.
all of the above
 

 83. 

Which of the following is true of alcoholism?
a.
It affects only the alcoholic.
c.
Recovery can be an ongoing process.
b.
It is a mental illness.
d.
all of the above
 

 84. 

The most avoidable cause of death in the United States is considered to be
a.
tobacco use.
c.
colon cancer.
b.
car accidents.
d.
bicycle riding.
 

 85. 

The blood’s ability to carry oxygen is blocked by
a.
tar.
c.
nicotine.
b.
carbon monoxide.
d.
formaldehyde.
 

 86. 

Smokeless tobacco can lead to
a.
mouth sores.
c.
Neither a nor b
b.
oral cancer.
d.
Both a and b
 

 87. 

Tobacco smoke paralyzes and kills
a.
cilia.
c.
lungs.
b.
alveoli.
d.
mucus.
 

 88. 

John does not smoke, but he rides home from work in the smoking car of a commuter train because he wants to be with his friends. Which of the following is not true of John?
a.
He is subject to sidestream smoke.
b.
He is subject to secondhand smoke.
c.
He is not at risk for lung cancer.
d.
His clothing may end up smelling of smoke.
 

 89. 

Maria just found out she is pregnant. She and her husband, Ed, smoke. They both need to quit smoking now. Why should they not resume smoking after their baby is born?
a.
Smoking can cause their baby’s growth rate to slow.
b.
Smoking can increase the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS).
c.
Smoking can increase the risk that they and their baby will develop respiratory illnesses.
d.
all of the above
 

 90. 

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is
a.
chronic bronchitis.
c.
A combination of a and b
b.
emphysema.
d.
Neither a nor b
 

 91. 

**EXTRA CREDIT**  Which of the following is not a short-term effect of tobacco use?
a.
increased energy
b.
increased breathing rate
c.
increased heart rate and blood pressure
d.
increased blood-sugar levels
 

 92. 

Herbal cigarettes, which may contain tobacco despite their names are also called
a.
marjoram, thyme, and basil.
c.
cloves, bidis, and kreteks.
b.
paprika, cloves, and oregano.
d.
bidis, paprika, and thyme.
 

 93. 

Which is not a reason that you would give a friend to encourage him or her to refrain from smoking?
a.
It is a way to cope with stress.
b.
It puts you at increased risk for many diseases.
c.
The smoke affects the environment.
d.
You will be short of breath.
 

 94. 

Which of the following is a reason that advertising encourages teens to smoke?
a.
Advertising is directed at teens.
b.
Tobacco products have been marketed to teens using people and cartoon animals that are attractive to teens.
c.
Advertising implies that smoking is fun.
d.
all of the above
 

 95. 

Which of the following is not one of the costs of tobacco use?
a.
environmental damage
c.
higher medical bills
b.
lower insurance premiums
d.
accidental fires
 

 96. 

**EXTRA CREDIT**  Which statement about refusal skills is true?
a.
Using effective refusal skills is easy.
b.
Practicing them is no use because each situation is different.
c.
You may find it difficult to keep resisting when you’re under pressure from your friends.
d.
You should criticize your friends even if it means losing them.
 

 97. 

Benefits of being tobacco-free are that
a.
you avoid being at high risk for many diseases.
b.
you are not addicted to nicotine.
c.
you save lots of money that you can spend on other things.
d.
all of the above
 

 98. 

When you stop using tobacco, your senses of smell and taste will return within
a.
a year.
c.
hours.
b.
a few days.
d.
a month.
 

 99. 

When using illegal drugs, the risk of catching certain infectious diseases increases because
a.
people who use illegal drugs are usually ill.
b.
some drugs carry disease.
c.
some illegal drug users share needles.
d.
people who use illegal drugs spend so much time together.
 

 100. 

Which of the following is a reason a person might begin using drugs?
a.
to experiment
b.
to escape from depression or boredom
c.
to engage in a risk-taking behavior
d.
all of the above
 

 101. 

Teens are at a higher risk of using illegal drugs because
a.
they are less mature than adults.
b.
of the pressures and changes associated with adolescence.
c.
most teens are unhappy with their lives.
d.
all of the above
 

 102. 

Which of the following describes what can occur once a person begins taking a drug?
a.
The person likes the way the drug makes him or her feel and must keep taking it to feel normal.
b.
Addiction happens immediately with any illegal drug.
c.
There is a brief period during which no negative side effects occur, then addiction follows.
d.
all of the above
 

 103. 

Which of the following is not true about hashish?
a.
It comes from the same plant as marijuana.
b.
Its effects are not as strong as those of marijuana.
c.
Its active ingredient is THC.
d.
It causes loss of balance and coordination.
 

 104. 

The changes in the brain seen in marijuana users are similar to those seen in
a.
long-term alcohol users.
c.
first-time crack users.
b.
heroin users.
d.
amphetamine users.
 

 105. 

**EXTRA CREDIT**  In men, anabolic steroids cause
a.
an increase in facial hair.
b.
the testes to increase in size.
c.
an increase in sperm production.
d.
a shutdown of normal testosterone production.
 

 106. 

**EXTRA CREDIT**  Repeated use of methamphetamine causes
a.
extreme sleepiness.
c.
hallucinations.
b.
permanent kidney or liver damage.
d.
dangerously slowed breathing.
 

 107. 

**EXTRA CREDIT**  Flashbacks are one of the dangerous side effects associated with
a.
LSD.
c.
amphetamines.
b.
heroin.
d.
marijuana.
 

 108. 

Which of the following describes one difference between powdered cocaine and crack cocaine?
a.
powdered cocaine produces a more intense effect
b.
powdered cocaine is smoked and crack cocaine is injected
c.
the effects of powdered cocaine last longer
d.
powdered cocaine is less addictive
 

 109. 

One of the serious dangers of heroin is
a.
how easy it is to obtain.
b.
that it is highly addictive.
c.
the distorted sense of reality it produces.
d.
its use as a date-rape drug.
 

 110. 

Suicide and accidental death are serious risks for people under the influence of
a.
PCP.
c.
heroin.
b.
marijuana.
d.
all of the above
 

 111. 

Accidental injury, violence, unplanned pregnancy, and criminal activity are all possible risks associated with
a.
heroin abuse.
c.
abuse of stimulants and depressants.
b.
anabolic steroid abuse.
d.
all of the above
 

 112. 

Which of the following is not true about effective drug abuse treatment?
a.
Patients should be monitored for continued drug use.
b.
Medications should never be included as part of the treatment.
c.
Treatment does not need to be voluntary.
d.
Mental disorders should be treated at the same time.
 

 113. 

The best way to avoid drugs is to
a.
make sure your friends know you are not interested.
b.
explain to friends who use drugs why they shouldn’t.
c.
stay away from people who use drugs and places where drugs will be used.
d.
make it clear at parties where drugs are being used that you are not interested.
 

 114. 

Infectious diseases can be spread by means of
a.
the environment.
c.
animals.
b.
food and water.
d.
all of the above
 

 115. 

Which action does not keep your immune system working effectively?
a.
eating right
b.
avoiding close contact with healthy people
c.
getting enough sleep
d.
exercising regularly
 

 116. 

Which of the following does not cause infectious diseases?
a.
protozoa
c.
white blood cells
b.
fungi
d.
viruses
 

 117. 

Which of the following is an infectious disease?
a.
cancer
c.
heart disease
b.
flu
d.
all of the above
 

 118. 

Which of the following cause infectious diseases?
a.
genetic disorders
c.
air pollutants
b.
toxic chemicals
d.
microorganisms
 

 119. 

Infectious diseases can be spread by contact with
a.
an infected person.
b.
an infected animal.
c.
a contaminated object or environmental source.
d.
all of the above
 

 120. 

Your body’s ability to destroy pathogens that it has previously encountered is called
a.
inflammation.
c.
immunity.
b.
immunization.
d.
vaccine.
 

 121. 

What is the body’s last and most complicated line of defense against infection?
a.
digestive system
c.
circulatory system
b.
immune system
d.
endocrine system
 

 122. 

Which of the following are organisms that cause disease?
a.
antibodies
c.
pus
b.
antibiotics
d.
pathogens
 

 123. 

The diseases ringworm and athlete’s foot are caused by
a.
bacteria.
c.
fungi.
b.
parasitic worms.
d.
viruses.
 

 124. 

Which of the following is not a long-term strategy for preventing disease?
a.
avoiding stress
c.
skipping meals
b.
getting immunized
d.
exercising regularly
 

 125. 

Sperm leave the male body through the
a.
urethra.
c.
vas deferens.
b.
seminiferous tubules.
d.
prostate gland.
 

 126. 

A function of the testes is to
a.
make estrogen.
b.
produce sperm.
c.
deliver sperm to the outside of the body.
d.
add fluid to sperm.
 

 127. 

When a sperm joins with an egg, it is called
a.
fertilization.
c.
ejaculation.
b.
premenstrual syndrome.
d.
ovulation.
 

 128. 

Testosterone is a hormone that is
a.
responsible for male sex characteristics.
b.
necessary for sperm production.
c.
produced by the testes.
d.
all of the above
 

 129. 

The male reproductive system produces and delivers
a.
hormones.
c.
sperm.
b.
eggs.
d.
testosterone.
 

 130. 

An embryo travels from the fallopian tube into the
a.
placenta.
c.
zygote.
b.
uterus.
d.
vas deferens.
 

 131. 

Which of the following is an organ of the female reproductive system?
a.
testes
c.
epididymis
b.
ovary
d.
vas deferens
 

 132. 

Which of the following best describes AIDS?
a.
a virus that slowly destroys the immune system
b.
a disease that is due to a weakened immune system
c.
a bacterial infection that causes opportunistic infections
d.
a virus similar to HIV
 

 133. 

Which of the following are the primary targets of HIV?
a.
all red blood cells
c.
all white blood cells
b.
helper T cells
d.
sickle cells
 

 134. 

Which of the following activities does not transmit HIV?
a.
kissing an HIV-infected person
b.
sexual activity with an infected person
c.
sharing needles with an infected person
d.
an HIV-infected mother breast-feeding her infant
 

 135. 

Which activity below puts a teen at risk for contracting the HIV virus?
a.
getting a body piercing by a professional who uses single-use needles
b.
donating blood at a community blood drive
c.
being sexually active with multiple partners
d.
befriending and socializing with a person who is HIV positive
 

 136. 

Which decision listed below will eliminate a person’s risk of HIV infection?
a.
practicing abstinence
b.
being in a monogamous marriage with an HIV-free person
c.
avoiding sharing needles with others
d.
all of the above
 

 137. 

When testing for HIV, doctors look for the presence of
a.
HIV antibodies.
b.
deformed white blood cells.
c.
deformed red blood cells.
d.
an abnormally high red blood cell count.
 

 138. 

**EXTRA CREDIT**  Drugs used to treat HIV
a.
will quickly eliminate the virus from the body.
b.
prevent the virus from replicating.
c.
are genetically engineered helper T cells.
d.
duplicate the body’s immune system response.
 

 139. 

A person living with HIV infection can delay the onset of AIDS by
a.
maintaining good health through treatment, diet, exercise, and rest.
b.
not participating in high-risk activities.
c.
educating others of the risks.
d.
keeping a positive attitude.
 

 140. 

AIDS is a disease that is
a.
easily cured.
b.
never passed from mother to child.
c.
easy for people to develop immunity to.
d.
usually acquired through high-risk behavior.
 

 141. 

**EXTRA CREDIT**  HIV is a virus that usually infects
a.
only homosexual males.
b.
only homosexual and heterosexual females.
c.
young adults under the age of 30.
d.
people who participate in high-risk behavior.
 

 142. 

Which of the following is a true statement about HIV?
a.
It strengthens the immune system.
b.
You can tell by looking at people whether or not they are infected with HIV.
c.
It can be in a person’s blood system for years before it causes health problems.
d.
Opportunistic infections are a symptom of a Phase I infection.
 

 143. 

**EXTRA CREDIT** Which of the following can transmit HIV?
a.
vaginal fluids
c.
saliva
b.
perspiration
d.
tears
 

 144. 

Which of the following is an AIDS fact?
a.
HIV and AIDS are the same thing.
b.
There have been some cases of HIV transmission through sharing food or beverages.
c.
People with HIV will look and feel sick.
d.
Avoiding high-risk behaviors will virtually eliminate your risk of getting HIV/AIDS.
 

 145. 

**EXTRA CREDIT**  Symptoms of immune system failure include
a.
swollen lymph glands and fatigue.
c.
mental changes such as forgetfulness.
b.
weight loss, fever, and diarrhea.
d.
all of the above
 

 146. 

If people suspect that they have been infected with HIV, they should
a.
be tested for HIV and seek additional medical advice from a medical professional.
b.
wait until symptoms appear before seeking testing and medical care.
c.
continue high-risk behaviors until they know for sure that they have been infected.
d.
tell no one, since they may encounter discrimination.
 

 147. 

Genital herpes can be treated with
a.
antibiotics.
b.
over-the-counter medication.
c.
antiviral medications that can shorten the duration and frequency of symptoms, but do not cure the condition.
d.
surgery.
 

 148. 

Which statement describes the most likely result of a teen becoming pregnant?
a.
The teenage mother will be showered with gifts and attention.
b.
The father of the child will marry her.
c.
Both parents will have to make many sacrifices.
d.
The parents will have access to free child care.
 

 149. 

Genital herpes is
a.
caused by HIV.
b.
a lifelong infection.
c.
diagnosed by an abnormal Pap smear.
d.
characterized by a yellow coloring of the skin.
 

 150. 

What are some ways, other than sexual intimacy, to show affection for someone you love?
a.
holding hands
b.
telling the person you like to be with them
c.
sending a card
d.
all of the above
 

 151. 

Teenage girls who are sexually active are at great risk of getting an STD because
a.
they are exposed to a large volume of body fluids and their cervixes are especially vulnerable to infection.
b.
they do not know how to protect themselves.
c.
they have more sexual partners than teenage boys do.
d.
they don’t communicate as well as teenage boys do.
 

 152. 

Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted disease that
a.
is always fatal.
b.
can have symptoms of discharge but (especially in women) may cause no symptoms at all.
c.
is caused by a virus.
d.
all of the above
 

 153. 

Gonorrhea can infect the
a.
membranes of the penis and vagina.
c.
rectum.
b.
throat.
d.
all of the above
 

 154. 

Syphilis can be treated by
a.
freezing the ulcers.
b.
treating both parties with antibiotics simultaneously.
c.
giving antiviral medications.
d.
surgically removing the ulcers.
 

 155. 

**EXTRA CREDIT** Chlamydia is an STD that
a.
is caused by a bacterium.
c.
a mother can pass on to her baby.
b.
often has no symptoms.
d.
all of the above
 

 156. 

Chlamydia
a.
is often spread by people who don’t know they have the disease.
b.
can cause problems during a pregnancy.
c.
can lead to infertility.
d.
all of the above
 

 157. 

An STD that is characterized by painful blisters and for which there is no cure is
a.
chlamydia.
c.
genital herpes.
b.
genital warts.
d.
syphilis.
 

 158. 

You can decrease your chances of getting an STD by
a.
practicing sexual abstinence.
c.
learning the facts about STDs.
b.
not using alcohol or drugs.
d.
all of the above
 

 159. 

All of the following are safe ways to express affection for someone except
a.
holding hands.
c.
listening attentively.
b.
sexual intercourse.
d.
hugging.
 

 160. 

To find out if you have an STD, you should
a.
talk to a counselor.
b.
visit a doctor or clinic.
c.
wait a week and see if the symptoms disappear.
d.
get an over-the-counter drug.
 

 161. 

Which of the following is not true of emotional maturity?
a.
It is a goal to achieve during young adulthood.
b.
It requires having the self-esteem to appreciate your talents.
c.
It means being fully developed and fully grown.
d.
It means having the capacity to form close relationships yet act independently.
 



 
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